IBPS SO Prelims 2024 Memory Based, Check All Questions Asked

As soon as the IBPS Specialist Officer (SO) Prelims 2024 exam ends, candidates eagerly wait for the information on the questions asked. Memory-based questions play an important role in helping candidates understand and analyze the difficulty level of the exam and the type of questions asked in different sections. This article provides an early look at some of the exam questions, with a promise to update with the entire memory-based question set soon.

IBPS SO Prelims Memory Based 2024

In the IBPS SO 2024 Prelims exam, candidates were tested in three sections: English Language, Reasoning and Quantitative Aptitude/General Awareness. Candidates appeared in the examination for various specialist roles like IT Officer, Agriculture Field Officer, HR/Personnel Officer and Marketing Officer. Based on early feedback, the exam was a little tougher, with questions designed to assess both conceptual knowledge and quick problem-solving abilities.

IBPS SO Prelims Memory Based 2024, Download PDF

The memory-based question set will provide a list of questions, covering all sections in more detail. This complete compilation will allow candidates to analyze sectional weightage and prepare for future examinations.

IBPS SO Prelims Memory Based 2024: Download PDF (Uploaded Soon)

Below is the list of questions asked in different sections. These questions are based on the memory of the candidates who appeared in the examination, giving a glimpse of the areas covered and the topics emphasized on.

Guidelines (1-6): Read the following pie chart carefully and answer the questions given below. Pie chart I shows the percentage distribution of pastries baked by five bakeries. Pie Chart II shows the percentage distribution of pastries sold by these five bakeries.

Q1. Find the ratio of the total number of pastries not sold by B and E together and the total number of pastries cooked by C.

(A) 1:2

(B) 2:1

(c) 3:1

(d) 1:4

(e) 4:3

Q2. The total number of pastries sold by A and B together is what percent more or less than the total number of unsold pastries sold by A and D together?

(A) 133.67%

(B) 233.67%

(c) 33.33%

(d) 133.33%

(e) 233.33%

Q3. The total number of pastries sold by F is (Z+10)% more than that of B. If the number of pastries not sold by F and C are in the ratio 8:5 respectively, then the total number of pastries baked by A is how much more or less than that of F.

(A) 27

(B) 29

(c) 21

(d) 24

(e)26

Q4. The ratio of puff and file pastries sold by D is 5:4 respectively. The number of puff pastries sold by E is 60% more than that of D. Find the difference between the number of filo pastries sold by D and E. (Only two types of pastries sold by D and E)

(A)20

(B) 24

(c) 30

(d) 45

(e)48

Q5. If the price of each pastry sold by A, B and D is Rs. Z, Z-3, and Z+5 respectively, then find the total revenue generated by A, B and D for selling pastries (in Rs.).

(A) 5499

(B) 5490

(c) 5940

(d) 5540

(e) 5240

Q6. What is the percent difference between the average number of pastries baked by A, D and E, the average number of pastries unsold and the average number of pastries sold by all the bakeries together?

(A) 250%

(B) 275%

(c) 225%

(d) 350%

(e) 325%

Guidelines (7 – 10): In each of these questions a number series is given. Only one number is wrong in each series. Find the wrong number.

Q7. 179, 520, 1251, 2582, 4779, 8154, 13067

(A) 520

(B) 179

(c) 1251

(d) 2582

(e) 8154

Q8. 1504, 1248, 1052, 908, 808, 750, 708

(A) 808

(B)1052

(c) 1248

(d) 1504

(e) 750

Q9. 10, 29, 55, 107, 211, 419, 825

(A) 10

(B) 29

(c) 55

(d) 825

(e) 419

Q10. 304, 319, 337, 359, 386, 419, 460

(A) 419

(B)460

(c)319

(d) 304

(e)359

Guidelines (11-15): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Nine persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I – are sitting in a row facing north. Every person likes different fruits – apple, mango, plum, cherry, pear, grapes, orange, kiwi and guava. All information provided is not necessarily in the given order.

B sits sixth to the right of the one who likes Plum. Three persons sit between the one who likes Plum and F. F sits immediate right of the one who likes Apple. The one who likes Cherry sits fourth to the left of the one who likes Apple. The one who likes Guava sits exactly between the one who likes Cherry and H. The one who likes Guava sits immediate right of the one who likes Kiwi. One person sits between the one who likes Kiwi and G who does not like Apple. There are as many persons sitting to the right of G as to the left of the one who likes Strawberry. The one who likes Strawberry is an immediate neighbor of the one who likes Pear. Two persons sit between the one who likes Pear and E. The person sitting immediate right of E likes Grapes. More than three persons sit between the one who likes Grapes and Mango. C sits second to the right of the one who likes Mango and exactly between D and A. I and D are not immediate neighbours.

Question 11. Who among the following sits to the immediate left of the one who sits fourth to the right of the one who likes Kiwi?

(A) The one who likes pear

(b) The person who likes grapes

(c) The one who likes guava

(d) The one who likes strawberry

(e) none of these

Question 12. Which of the following combinations is/are correct?

(a) F – common

(b) H – apple

(c) C – Cherry

(d) I – Kiwi

(e) none of these

Q13. What is the position of the one who likes Pear with respect to I?

(a) fourth from the right

(b) right left

(c) fifth from the right

(d) third to the left

(e) fifth to the left

Question 14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?

(A) The one who likes plum

(Elderly women

(c) The one who likes apple

(d) b

(e) The one who likes strawberry

Question 15. How many persons sit between the one who likes Strawberry and D?

(a) five

(b) four

(c) six

(d) eight

(e) three

Q16. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘BEAUTIFY’, each of which has as many letters between them as in the English alphabet (in both forward and backward directions).

(Two

(b) three

(c) four

(Done

(e) more than four

Guidelines (17-20): In each question given below, some statements are given followed by five conclusions in the form of five options. You have to consider the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the statements carefully and decide which of the conclusions definitely follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Q17. statement:

Only a few march are july.

Only July is June.

Only a few April are July.

conclusion:

(A) All March being July is a possibility.

(B) No April is March.

(c) Any March being June is not a possibility.

(d) All April being June is a possibility.

(e) Some July is not March.

Question 18. statement:

Only some yellow is blue.

Only a few red are green.

All blue is red.

conclusion:

(A) Some yellow is not red.

(b) No blue is green.

(c) All yellow are red.

(d) Something blue not being green is a possibility.

(e) No yellow is green.

Question 19. statement:

Some light is not white.

Only a few are light colours.

There is only white prism.

conclusion:

(a) Some light not being prism is a possibility.

(b) All light being colors is a possibility.

(c) Some prisms are light.

(d) All are white light.

(e) All prisms are not coloured.

Q20. statement:

Only box is bottle.

Only a few mobiles are boxes.

No box is a device.

conclusion:

(a) Some device being bottle is a possibility.

(B) Some mobiles are bottles.

(c) Some boxes are not mobile.

(d) There is no mobile device.

(e) All bottles being mobile is a possibility.

Guidelines (21-25): Rearrange the following sentences to make a coherent paragraph.

(a) In recent years, rapid advancements in technology have changed the way we communicate, work and even think.

(b) This change has not only affected individual lifestyles but also had a significant impact on entire industries and economies.

(c) The accessibility and affordability of digital devices has enabled more people to work remotely, access information instantly and connect globally.

(d) As technology continues to develop, its impact on society will increase, bringing both opportunities and challenges.

(e) A prime example of this change is the rise of digital platforms, which allow individuals to collaborate and share knowledge across vast distances.

(f) However, along with these benefits, there are also concerns about privacy, mental health and the potential loss of human jobs due to automation.

Question 21. Which of the following statements is the first statement after the rearrangement?

(a) a

(b) b

(c) c

(D) D

(and and

Question 22. Which of the following statements is the second statement after rearrangement?

(a) a

(b) b

(c) c

(D) D

(and and

Q23. Which of the following statements is the third statement after rearrangement?

(a) a

(b) b

(c) c

(D) D

(and and

Question 24. Which of the following statements is the fourth statement after rearrangement?

(a) a

(b) b

(c) c

(D) D

(e) f

Question 25. Which of the following statements is the last statement after rearrangement?

(a) a

(b) b

(c) F

(D) D

(and and

Directions (26-28): In the following questions, a sentence has been divided into some parts. One of the parts may be grammatically incorrect. Identify the wrong part.

Question 26. (a) Detailed analysis of the findings of the study, / (b) which were published in several scientific journals, / (c) provide a clear understanding of the impacts / (d) of climate change on coastal ecosystems.
(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(D) D
(e) no error

Question 27. (a) Many experts believe that the main reason for the decline in literacy rates / (b) is the rapid growth of digital platforms / (c) which encourages more visual content consumption over traditional reading habits among young people is / (d)

(a) a

(b) b

(c) c

(D) D

(e) no error

Question 28. (a) While the organization has implemented various measures to reduce its carbon footprint / (b), / (c) there are many departments / (d) which have not yet fully followed the guidelines.

(a) a

(b) b

(c) c

(D) D

(e) no error

Guidelines (29-30): In each of the following questions one sentence is given. There are two blank spaces in each sentence. From the options given below the sentence, choose the pair of words that fits in both the blanks respectively to make the sentence contextually meaningful and mark the corresponding letter as your answer.

Question 29. The projects will create ______________ multi-modal connectivity infrastructure, ______________ seamless movement of people, goods and services.

(a) include, facilitate

(B) Convenience, ensuring

(c) offer, help

(d) to highlight, to promote

(e) to attend, to ensure

Q30. Indian market ________________ follows the global trend of bullish sentiment, mainly on expectations of US interest rate cut in September ______________.

(a) resistant, fuel

(b) parallel, sparking

(c) matching, inspired

(d) align, trigger

(e) reflected, driven

Tips for Analyzing and Using Memory-Based Questions

  • Identify key areas: Focus on recurring topics like puzzles in reasoning, DI in quantity and comprehension in English, which are usually consistent in such exams.
  • Practice Time Management: Use these memory-based questions to simulate exam conditions, timing yourself to improve speed and accuracy.
  • Refine weak areas: Compare your performance on these questions to identify and strengthen areas that may need more attention.
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Hello friends, I am Ashok Nayak, the Author & Founder of this website blog, I have completed my post-graduation (M.sc mathematics) in 2022 from Madhya Pradesh. I enjoy learning and teaching things related to new education and technology. I request you to keep supporting us like this and we will keep providing new information for you. #We Support DIGITAL INDIA.

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